the Bible and homosexuality
Many wonder why this issue is not settled quickly. "The Bible is so clear on the issue."
However, others make a case that the Bible does not condemn all homosexual practice, that the passages which mention same-sex relations are not as straightforward as they appear.
Leviticus 18:22 "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." (also 20:13)
Pro-gay comments: These passages are found in what is commonly called the Holiness Code (Leviticus 17-26) and may refer to ritual impurity (uncleanness) rather than immorality. If so, they are irrelevant to us, for the Gospel releases Christians from this part of the Jewish law.
Response to pro-gay comments: The Holiness Code also contains much moral law (not just ritual law). For instance, the chapter between the two texts contains prohibitions of idolatry, injustice to the poor, theft, vengeance, and so on. These texts (and, for instance, the prohibition of bestiality which accompanies them) may remain relevant today.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10 "...nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders [arsenokoitai] nor...will inherit the kingdom of God" (also 1 Timothy 1:9-10)
Pro-gay comments: The Greek word often translated as referring to homosexual practice is unclear. It does not occur in any literature prior to the New Testament, and does not occur again for 100 years. It possibly describes and forbids only pederasty or same-sex prostitution--not the kind of homosexual behavior which gay Christians try to defend.
Response: The word arsenokoitai is a compound word formed from two Greek words "man" and "to lie." It has a simple and obvious meaning. The fact that the word occurs nowhere prior to the New Testament and does not occur again for at least 100 years indicates that it could not have, through use, acquired a meaning other than the simple and obvious one. Further, the Greek text of Leviticus 20:13 uses the same two words: meta arsenos koiten gynaikos ("whoever lies with a man as with a woman"). Would this not have been in Paul's mind? Leviticus 18-20, seen as a summary of the law, is often quoted in the New Testament.
Romans 1:26-27 "...women exchanged natural relations for unnatural [para physin] ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."
Pro-gay comments: This passage may refer solely to heterosexual people who engage in homosexual acts. (Paul says these persons abandoned their "natural relations"--that is, they knew and experienced heterosexual affections but abandoned them.) As such, the passage does not condemn those who are homosexual by nature, but only individual heterosexuals who occasionally deny their own "natures" by performing homosexual acts.
Response: In Greek literature the expression para physin ("unnatural") was the standard terminology for referring to homoerotic acts in general. Only we in the modern era with our emphasis on the individual would tend to think that "unnatural" means "contrary to what an individual feels is natural" rather than "contrary to the natural order for humanity."
Josephus (late-first-century Jewish historian) lists same-sex relations and incest as characteristic of the "monstrous and unnatural [para physin] pleasures" of the Gentiles (Against Apion 2.273- 75). Plutarch (c. A.D. 100) contrasts "natural" love between men and women to "union contrary to nature [para physin] with males," and a few lines later he repeats that those who "consort with males" do so para physin (Erotikos 751 C,E).
A basic understanding of human reproduction and anatomy is enough to make it clear that all acts of homosexual intercourse are contrary to the intent of nature.
Pro-gay comments: Perhaps Paul's explicit remarks on homosexuality apply only to some forms of same-sex relationships. For instance, Paul may not have had in mind loving, committed same-sex relationships -- he may have known only of abusive, promiscuous, and/or cultic homosexuality. If so, no wonder he spoke against it!
Response: Paul wrote about female same-sex relationships which are seldom linked with pederasty or other violent forms. In mentioning same-sex relations by both females and males and using terminology denoting mutual desire ("consumed with passion for one another" v27 NRSV), Paul describes behavior similar to most forms of homosexual conduct as we know it today.
Jesus. It is often viewed as significant that Jesus never mentioned homosexuality. But Jesus also did not mention incest, rape, or pedophilia. There was no need--all those he met already abhorred such sexual acts.